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Sample questions

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These are eight real questions from the bank, with the full rationale shown. No account, no card. They cover the newer Next Gen NCLEX formats and they’re written the way nursing works in Australia, so what you practise is what you’ll actually see on the ward.

This is a small sample. The full bank has 1,500+ questions across 12 categories, plus mock exams and flashcards.

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Multiple choiceQuestion 1 of 8

The classic single-best-answer format. One option is right; the rest are plausible traps.

Renal and fluid balanceIntermediate

Ms Papadopoulos, a 48-year-old woman (71 kg) with type 1 diabetes, is admitted after two days of vomiting and poor insulin adherence. Admission bloods: BSL 28.4 mmol/L, K+ 6.3 mmol/L, Na 131 mmol/L, HCO3 9 mmol/L, pH 7.18, creatinine 198 μmol/L. Obs: BP 102/64, HR 118, RR 28, SpO2 97% on room air. ECG shows sinus tachycardia with peaked T waves. The registrar has ordered an insulin infusion for DKA.

When analysing her potassium result of 6.3 mmol/L in the context of DKA, which interpretation is most clinically accurate?

  • The K+ 6.3 mmol/L confirms genuine hyperkalaemia requiring calcium gluconate and sodium resonium before insulin is commenced.
  • The K+ 6.3 mmol/L is likely accurate and will remain elevated throughout treatment because the kidneys will excrete the excess.
  • The K+ 6.3 mmol/L likely masks a severely depleted total body potassium; acidosis and insulin deficiency have shifted potassium out of the cells.
  • The K+ 6.3 mmol/L is a laboratory error; DKA patients are always hypokalaemic at presentation due to osmotic diuresis.
Why

In DKA, three mechanisms shift potassium from inside the cells to the bloodstream: insulin deficiency removes the main driver of cellular uptake, the acidosis (pH 7.18) drives an H+/K+ exchange, and hyperosmolality adds solvent drag. So a serum K+ of 6.3 mmol/L at presentation usually hides a large total body deficit from the prior osmotic diuresis and vomiting. Per eTG DKA management, once the insulin infusion starts, potassium falls quickly as it moves back into the cells — hypokalaemia during treatment is a major, life-threatening complication, so K+ is monitored closely and replaced. Treating this as true hyperkalaemia and giving sodium resonium would strip out potassium that is already depleted and set the patient up for a dangerous fall once insulin is running.

Select all that apply (SATA)Question 2 of 8

Every correct option must be selected and every wrong one left out — partial credit rules vary, so precision matters.

Respiratory / sepsisIntermediate

Minh Nguyen, 68 (78 kg), is admitted to a general medical ward with a 3-day history of productive cough, fever and increasing breathlessness. Obs: T 38.9°C, HR 112, RR 26, BP 98/62, SpO2 90% on room air. He is confused and not orientated to time. Bloods: WBC 18.2, lactate 3.1 mmol/L, creatinine 142 μmol/L. Chest X-ray confirms right lower lobe consolidation. No known allergies.

Which nursing actions are appropriate at this time? Select all that apply.

  • Apply supplemental oxygen titrated to achieve SpO2 ≥94% and document the response.
  • Prepare to administer a 30 mL/kg NaCl 0.9% fluid bolus as per sepsis resuscitation.
  • Initiate a MET call and notify the registrar of the deteriorating status.
  • Collect two sets of blood cultures from separate sites before commencing antibiotics.
  • Administer oxygen targeting SpO2 ≥98% via a non-rebreather mask immediately.
  • Withhold IV fluid resuscitation until formal sepsis screening is completed by the medical team.
Correct answer

Correct: oxygen to SpO2 ≥94%, a 30 mL/kg fluid bolus, a MET call, and two blood cultures before antibiotics.

Why

Mr Nguyen meets MET call criteria (HR >110, RR >25, SBP <100, new confusion, SpO2 <92%) and Sepsis-3 criteria (suspected infection plus organ dysfunction — confusion, raised creatinine, lactate >2 mmol/L). The ACSQHC Sepsis Clinical Care Standard and the Surviving Sepsis Campaign direct two sets of blood cultures from separate sites before antibiotics, a 30 mL/kg NaCl 0.9% bolus in the first hour, and oxygen titrated to 94–98% for a non-COPD adult. Targeting ≥98% with a non-rebreather over-oxygenates and risks harm, and withholding fluids to wait for formal screening delays a time-critical intervention the nurse should start alongside escalation.

Multiple response (recognise cues)Question 3 of 8

A Next Gen format that tests the first clinical-judgement step: sorting the significant cues from the noise.

Respiratory / deteriorationFoundational

It is 0215 on a medical ward. Yusuf Mohammed, 74 (78 kg), was admitted 18 hours ago with a productive cough and right-sided pleuritic chest pain, on a background of type 2 diabetes. Tonight he is diaphoretic, sitting bolt upright and speaking in short sentences. Obs: T 38.9°C, HR 112, RR 26, BP 94/58, SpO2 89% on 4 L/min via nasal prongs. BSL 14.2 mmol/L. Yesterday morning: WBC 18.4, CRP 187. His second dose of IV antibiotics, due at 2200, has not been given.

Which findings should the RN immediately recognise as significant cues that Mr Mohammed may be deteriorating? Select all that apply.

  • RR of 26 breaths/min
  • BP of 94/58 mmHg
  • SpO2 of 89% on 4 L/min nasal prongs
  • Temperature of 38.9°C
  • BSL of 14.2 mmol/L
  • WBC of 18.4 documented yesterday
  • Background of type 2 diabetes
Correct answer

Correct cues: RR 26, BP 94/58, SpO2 89% on 4 L/min, and temperature 38.9°C.

Why

The significant cues are the current, objective physiological changes that meet escalation thresholds: tachypnoea (RR 26) and hypotension (SBP <100) are MET and SIRS triggers under the Between the Flags / ADDS framework, SpO2 89% despite 4 L/min is oxygen-therapy failure, and 38.9°C confirms the febrile picture of sepsis. The elevated BSL is expected stress hyperglycaemia and does not change the immediate priority, the WBC is a historical result from yesterday rather than a cue about tonight, and type 2 diabetes is a static background factor. The point of the cue-recognition step is to act on what is changing now.

Matrix / gridQuestion 4 of 8

A Next Gen format where each finding is classified against a set of columns — testing judgement across a whole picture at once.

Neurological / critical careAdvanced

It is 1130. Dimitri has returned to ICU from theatre after an emergency re-craniotomy and evacuation of an epidural haematoma, with an ICP monitor placed intra-operatively. Obs: HR 72, BP 142/78, ventilated, SpO2 99% on FiO2 0.35, Temp 37.8°C, ICP 14 mmHg (CPP 85). GCS 7T (improved from 3T). Right pupil 4 mm and sluggish (was 6 mm and fixed). Urine output has risen to 280 mL/hr for two hours. Na+ 152 mmol/L. BSL 11.2 mmol/L. Hb 88 g/L (pre-op 102).

For each finding, indicate its clinical significance: improvement, deterioration, or requires immediate action.

Correct answer

ICP 14 with CPP 85 — improvement. Right pupil now 4 mm and reactive — improvement. GCS 7T (up from 3T) — improvement. Urine output 280 mL/hr with Na+ 152 — requires immediate action. Hb 88 g/L (down from 102) — deterioration.

Why

ICP under 20 with CPP well above 60, a pupil recovering from fixed-and-dilated, and a rising GCS all point to successful decompression. The finding that demands immediate action is the massive urine output (about 3 mL/kg/hr) with a rising sodium of 152 mmol/L, which strongly suggests post-neurosurgical central diabetes insipidus — the RN should notify the ICU consultant, check urine specific gravity, match fluid replacement to output and anticipate desmopressin, because uncontrolled DI causes severe hypernatraemia and secondary brain injury. The Hb drop from 102 to 88 g/L signals intra-operative blood loss to keep watching. Classifying each finding separately is exactly the reasoning the matrix format is built to test.

Highlight textQuestion 5 of 8

A Next Gen format: read a clinical note or handover and select the exact phrases that matter.

RespiratoryIntermediate

Afternoon bedside handover on Doris Williams, 83, admitted overnight from a nursing home with a COPD exacerbation on a chest infection (COPD, type 2 diabetes, hypertension; 58 kg): “Her 1000 obs were fine — SpO2 91% on 2 L/min, which is where we want her, RR 22, HR 88, BP 136/78, afebrile. She's on nebulised salbutamol and oral prednisolone. BSL 14.2 at 1200, up from 9.1, probably the steroids, medical team know. Just before handover she buzzed with a new headache and feeling really drowsy — when I went in she was hard to rouse, GCS dropped to 12. SpO2 now 93% on the same 2 L. RR is 28. She said her chest pain feels tight but she's said that before. Last urine output over 6 hours was 180 mL.”

Highlight the findings in the handover that require immediate follow-up.

Correct answer

Highlight: “new headache and feels really drowsy”, “hard to rouse — GCS dropped to 12”, “RR is 28”, and “urine output over 6 hours was 180 mL”.

Why

In a COPD patient on oxygen, new drowsiness with a falling GCS is the cardinal sign of hypercapnic encephalopathy (CO2 narcosis) — per eTG and TSANZ this mandates an urgent ABG, medical review and consideration of non-invasive ventilation, and a GCS of 12 is itself a MET criterion. RR 28 is a fresh escalation trigger, and 180 mL over 6 hours (about 30 mL/hr for 58 kg) sits at the oliguria threshold. The SpO2 of 91–93% is correct for the COPD target of 88–92% and is not a concern, and the elevated BSL is expected steroid effect the team already knows about. The format rewards picking out precisely the phrases that change management.

Drop-down rationale (cloze)Question 6 of 8

A Next Gen format: complete a clinical-reasoning sentence by choosing the right condition and the evidence for it.

Sepsis and critical careIntermediate

Mrs Priya Patel, 58, is brought to the ED resuscitation bay — her daughter says she 'hasn't been right for two days'. She is a type 2 diabetic on metformin with dysuria and rigors since yesterday. On arrival: HR 136, RR 28, T 39.4°C, BP 78/44, GCS 12, SpO2 96% on 15 L non-rebreather. BSL 22.4 mmol/L. Venous gas: lactate 5.1 mmol/L, pH 7.29. Skin is warm and flushed; central capillary refill 3 seconds.

Complete the statement: “The patient is most likely experiencing ___ as evidenced by ___.”

Correct answer

Most likely: septic shock secondary to urosepsis — evidenced by SBP 78 mmHg, lactate 5.1 mmol/L, pH 7.29, dysuria with rigors, and warm vasodilated peripheries indicating distributive septic physiology.

Why

The ACSQHC Sepsis Clinical Care Standard and Sepsis-3 define septic shock as sepsis with hypotension plus a lactate over 2 mmol/L — both are present (SBP 78, lactate 5.1). The two-day history of dysuria and rigors identifies a urinary source progressing to bacteraemia, and the warm, flushed peripheries with tachycardia are the high-output distributive picture of early septic shock, which is what separates it from the cool, clammy peripheries of hypovolaemic or cardiogenic shock. This patient needs the sepsis pathway now: two blood cultures before antibiotics, IV antibiotics within 60 minutes, a 30 mL/kg bolus and urgent ICU review. HHS and DKA are distractors that cannot explain the fever, rigors and lactate driven by infection.

Drop-down clozeQuestion 7 of 8

A Next Gen format: fill the blanks in a reasoning statement from linked drop-down menus.

PerioperativeIntermediate

At 1430 a family member asks why Priya Singh, 67, hasn't had 'her blood clot injection' today. Priya is six hours post right total knee replacement under spinal anaesthesia (spinal performed 0815). Her chart prescribes enoxaparin 40 mg subcut for VTE prophylaxis. There's no documented pre-op enoxaparin time, though the admission note records a 40 mg dose at 1800 the evening before surgery.

Complete: “The RN should ___ because the patient is showing signs of ___.”

Correct answer

The RN should withhold the enoxaparin, contact the surgical registrar to confirm the safe post-spinal timeframe and document the reasoning — because this is a high-risk perioperative anticoagulation window after neuraxial anaesthesia, where premature enoxaparin risks spinal haematoma and paralysis.

Why

ACORN, the NHMRC VTE prevention guidelines and ANZCA all specify that prophylactic low-molecular-weight heparin is not given until at least 4–6 hours after spinal needle removal — and ideally 12 hours when timing is unclear — to avoid an epidural or spinal haematoma, which can cause permanent paralysis. Here the spinal was at 0815 and it is 1430 (about 6 hours), right at the lower boundary, and the missing pre-op dose time adds uncertainty. Withholding and confirming with the registrar is the safe, ACORN-compliant action; the RN does not have the authority to independently decide the post-spinal timing, giving the full dose now would be unsafe, and a half dose has no evidence base.

Bow-tieQuestion 8 of 8

The signature Next Gen format: link the condition to the priority actions and the parameters to monitor, all in one map.

EndocrineIntermediate

Mr Papadopoulos, 68 (92 kg), is admitted from residential aged care: increasingly confused, not eating or drinking for three days, found on the floor. History of type 2 diabetes on glipizide, hypertension and mild cognitive impairment. Obs: GCS 11, BSL 38.7 mmol/L, BP 102/60, HR 108, Temp 38.1°C. Serum osmolality 344 mOsm/kg, Na 151, K 3.2, venous pH 7.36, ketones 0.6 mmol/L.

Identify the primary condition, the two priority immediate actions, and the two critical monitoring parameters.

Correct answer

Condition: hyperosmolar hyperglycaemic state (HHS). Actions: insert a large-bore IV cannula and start 0.9% NaCl at 500 mL/hr for the first two hours; withhold glipizide and document it as ceased on a registrar verbal order. Monitor: BSL and serum osmolality 1–2 hourly (aiming BSL fall ≤5 mmol/L/hr, osmolality ≤3–4 mOsm/kg/hr); serum potassium every 2 hours before and during any insulin.

Why

This meets HHS criteria — BSL >33, osmolality >320, minimal ketones and a near-normal pH — which per eTG predominates in older type 2 diabetics with intercurrent illness and poor intake. Fluid resuscitation, not insulin, is the first-line action: it addresses the hypotension and lowers BSL by dilution and restored renal excretion, and eTG explicitly withholds insulin until fluids are established to avoid a rapid osmolality drop and cerebral oedema. Withholding the sulphonylurea prevents hypoglycaemia as glucose corrects. The two monitoring parameters guard the two biggest dangers: over-rapid correction (osmolality) and insulin-driven hypokalaemia (a K+ of 3.2 will fall further once insulin runs).

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Further reading: what to look for in NCLEX prep on the AHPRA pathway and Australian drug names and terms nurses need to know.